Instant Download CompTIA: CAS-004 Free Updated Test Dumps
Valid CAS-004 FREE EXAM DUMPS QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CompTIA CAS-004 or the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) certification is a globally recognized certification program designed to validate advanced-level security skills and knowledge. The CASP+ certification is ideal for cybersecurity professionals who want to demonstrate their expertise in enterprise security, risk management, and the integration of computing, communications, and business disciplines.
NEW QUESTION # 24
An organization's hunt team thinks a persistent threats exists and already has a foothold in the enterprise network.
Which of the following techniques would be BEST for the hunt team to use to entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity?
- A. Deploy a SOAR tool.
- B. Modify user password history and length requirements.
- C. Apply new isolation and segmentation schemes.
- D. Implement decoy files on adjacent hosts.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 25
A large number of emails have been reported, and a security analyst is reviewing the following information from the emails:
As part of the image process, which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take?
- A. Ignore the emails, as SPF validation is successful, and it is a false positive
- B. Block the email address carl.b@comptia1 com, as it is sending spam to subject matter experts
- C. Validate the final "Received" header against the DNS entry of the domain.
- D. Compare the 'Return-Path" and "Received" fields.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The "Received" header is a field in the email header that shows the path the email has taken from the sender to the recipient. The DNS entry of the domain is a record in the Domain Name System (DNS) that specifies the server responsible for handling email for a particular domain. By comparing the "Received" header to the DNS entry, the analyst can determine whether the email has been routed through the correct servers and whether it is likely to be legitimate.
Blocking the email address [email protected] (option A) may be necessary if the emails are confirmed to be spam, but it should not be the first step in the triage process. Validating the
"Return-Path" and "Received" fields (option C) may be necessary as part of the triage process, but it is not the first step. Ignoring the emails because SPF validation is successful (option D) is not a recommended approach, as SPF validation alone is not sufficient to determine the legitimacy of an email.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A health company has reached the physical and computing capabilities in its datacenter, but the computing demand continues to increase. The infrastructure is fully virtualized and runs custom and commercial healthcare application that process sensitive health and payment information. Which of the following should the company implement to ensure it can meet the computing demand while complying with healthcare standard for virtualization and cloud computing?
- A. Private SaaS solution in a single tenancy cloud.
- B. Hybrid IaaS solution in a single-tenancy cloud
- C. SaaS solution in a community cloud
- D. Pass solution in a multinency cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A hybrid IaaS solution in a single-tenancy cloud is the best option for the company to meet the computing demand while complying with healthcare standards for virtualization and cloud computing. A hybrid IaaS solution allows the company to use both on-premises and cloud-based resources to scale up its capacity and performance. A single-tenancy cloud ensures that the company's data and applications are isolated from other customers and have dedicated resources and security controls. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide ,
https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/special-topics/cloud-computing/index.html
NEW QUESTION # 27
A company suspects a web server may have been infiltrated by a rival corporation. The security engineer reviews the web server logs and finds the following:
The security engineer looks at the code with a developer, and they determine the log entry is created when the following line is run:
Which of the following is an appropriate security control the company should implement?
- A. Separate the items in the system call to prevent command injection.
- B. Restrict directory permission to read-only access.
- C. Parameterize a query in the path variable to prevent SQL injection.
- D. Use server-side processing to avoid XSS vulnerabilities in path input.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 28
A company has moved its sensitive workloads to the cloud and needs to ensure high availability and resiliency of its web-based application. The cloud architecture team was given the following requirements:
- The application must run at 70% capacity at all times
- The application must sustain DoS and DDoS attacks.
- Services must recover automatically.
Which of the following should the cloud architecture team implement? (Choose three.)
- A. Encryption
- B. CDN
- C. Read-only replicas
- D. Continuous snapshots
- E. Containerization
- F. WAF
- G. Autoscaling
- H. BCP
Answer: D,F,G
Explanation:
C: Autoscaling: Autoscaling helps maintain the application at 70% capacity at all times by automatically adding or removing resources based on the current demand. It also ensures that the application is always available even during a surge in demand.
D: WAF: A web application firewall (WAF) helps protect the application against DoS and DDoS attacks by filtering out malicious traffic before it reaches the application. It can also block suspicious traffic and help prevent common web application attacks.
G: Continuous snapshots: Continuous snapshots help ensure that data is not lost in case of a disaster or an attack. By continuously backing up the data, the application can be restored to a recent state in case of a problem.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Leveraging cryptographic solutions to protect data that is in use ensures the data is encrypted:
- A. by an enterprise hardware security module.
- B. when it is written to a system's solid-state drive.
- C. in memory during processing
- D. when it is passed across a local network.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 30
An organization's existing infrastructure includes site-to-site VPNs between datacenters. In the past year, a sophisticated attacker exploited a zero-day vulnerability on the VPN concentrator. Consequently, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is making infrastructure changes to mitigate the risk of service loss should another zero-day exploit be used against the VPN solution.
Which of the following designs would be BEST for the CISO to use?
- A. Distributing security resources across VPN sites
- B. Adding a second redundant layer of alternate vendor VPN concentrators
- C. Using Base64 encoding within the existing site-to-site VPN connections
- D. Implementing IDS services with each VPN concentrator
- E. Transitioning to a container-based architecture for site-based services
Answer: B
Explanation:
If on VPN concentrator goes down due to a zero day threat, having a redundant VPN concentrator of a different vendor should keep you going.
NEW QUESTION # 31
An organization mat provides a SaaS solution recently experienced an incident involving customer data loss. The system has a level of sell-healing that includes monitoring performance and available resources. When me system detects an issue, the self-healing process is supposed to restart pans of me software.
During the incident, when me self-healing system attempted to restart the services, available disk space on the data drive to restart all the services was inadequate. The self-healing system did not detect that some services did not fully restart and declared me system as fully operational. Which of the following BEST describes me reason why the silent failure occurred?
- A. The number of nodes in me self-healing cluster was healthy,
- B. The system logs rotated prematurely.
- C. Conditional checks prior to the service restart succeeded.
- D. The disk utilization alarms are higher than what me service restarts require.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 32
A security analyst for a managed service provider wants to implement the most up-to-date and effective security methodologies to provide clients with the best offerings. Which of the following resources would the analyst MOST likely adopt?
- A. ISO
- B. OWASP
- C. OSINT
- D. MITRE ATT&CK
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 33
A security compliance requirement states that specific environments that handle sensitive data must be protected by need-to-know restrictions and can only connect to authorized endpoints.
The requirement also states that a DLP solution within the environment must be used to control the data from leaving the environment.
Which of the following should be implemented for privileged users so they can support the environment from their workstations while remaining compliant?
- A. NAC to control authorized endpoints
- B. A general VPN solution to the primary network
- C. FIM on the servers storing the data
- D. A jump box in the screened subnet
Answer: D
Explanation:
To support the specific environment that handles sensitive data while remaining compliant with the security compliance requirement, it would be appropriate to implement a jump box in the screened subnet for privileged users.
A jump box is a secure server that is used as a central point of access to a restricted network. It is typically used to provide remote access to a screened subnet, which is a network segment that is isolated from the rest of the network and is only accessible through a jump box or other secure access point. By using a jump box, privileged users can access the environment and support it from their workstations while still maintaining need-to-know restrictions and only connecting to authorized endpoints.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A company created an external, PHP-based web application for its customers. A security researcher reports that the application has the Heartbleed vulnerability. Which of the following would BEST resolve and mitigate the issue? (Select TWO).
- A. Deploying a WAF signature
- B. Changing the code from PHP to ColdFusion
- C. Updating the OpenSSL library
- D. Changing the web server from HTTPS to HTTP
- E. UsingSSLv3
- F. Fixing the PHP code
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
B) Fixing the PHP code is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because the vulnerability is not in the PHP code, but in the OpenSSL library that handles the SSL/TLS encryption for the web server.
C) Changing the web server from HTTPS to HTTP is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because it would expose all the web traffic to eavesdropping and tampering by attackers. HTTPS provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for web communications, and should not be disabled for security reasons.
D) Using SSLv3 is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because SSLv3 is an outdated and insecure protocol that has been deprecated and replaced by TLS. SSLv3 does not support modern cipher suites, encryption algorithms, or security features, and is vulnerable to various attacks, such as POODLE.
E) Changing the code from PHP to ColdFusion is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because the vulnerability is not related to the programming language of the web application, but to the OpenSSL library that handles the SSL/TLS encryption for the web server.
https://owasp.org/www-community/vulnerabilities/Heartbleed_Bug
https://heartbleed.com/
Explanation:
Deploying a web application firewall (WAF) signature is a way to detect and block attempts to exploit the Heartbleed vulnerability on the web server. A WAF signature is a pattern that matches a known attack vector, such as a malicious heartbeat request. By deploying a WAF signature, the company can protect its web application from Heartbleed attacks until the underlying vulnerability is fixed.
Updating the OpenSSL library is the ultimate way to fix and mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability. The OpenSSL project released version 1.0.1g on April 7, 2014, which patched the bug by adding a bounds check to the heartbeat function. By updating the OpenSSL library on the web server, the company can eliminate the vulnerability and prevent any future exploitation.
NEW QUESTION # 35
An organization recently started processing, transmitting, and storing its customers' credit card information. Within a week of doing so, the organization suffered a massive breach that resulted in the exposure of the customers' information.
Which of the following provides the BEST guidance for protecting such information while it is at rest and in transit?
- A. GDPR
- B. ISO
- C. PCI DSS
- D. NIST
Answer: C
Explanation:
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information while it is at rest and in transit. PCI DSS is a standard that defines the security requirements and best practices for organizations that process, store, or transmit credit card information, such as merchants, service providers, or acquirers. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of credit card information and prevent fraud or identity theft. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an agency that develops standards, guidelines, and recommendations for various fields of science and technology, including cybersecurity. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but a regulation that defines the data protection and privacy rights and obligations for individuals and organizations in the European Union or the European Economic Area. ISO (International Organization for Standardization) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of science and technology, including information security. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pci-dss https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 36
A new web server must comply with new secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. This includes mitigating the risk of an on-path attack. A security analyst is reviewing the following web server configuration:
Which of the following ciphers should the security analyst remove to support the business requirements?
- A. TLS_CHACHA20_POLY1305_SHA256
- B. TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA
- C. TLS_AES_128_CCM_8_SHA256
- D. TLS_AES_128_GCM_SHA256
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 37
A new, online file hosting service is being offered. The service has the following security requirements:
* Threats to customer data integrity and availability should be remediated first.
* The environment should be dynamic to match increasing customer demands.
* The solution should not interfere with customers" ability to access their data at anytime.
* Security analysts should focus on high-risk items.
Which of the following would BEST satisfy the requirements?
- A. Increasing the number of analysts to Identify risks that need remediation
- B. Integrating enterprise threat feeds in the existing SIEM
- C. Expanding the use of IPS and NGFW devices throughout the environment
- D. Implementing a SOAR solution to address known threats
Answer: D
Explanation:
A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, or denial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:
Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.
Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.
Not interfere with customers' ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.
Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A security engineer needs to recommend a solution that will meet the following requirements:
Identify sensitive data in the provider's network
Maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines
Detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts Enforce datacentric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and access control Which of the following solutions should the security engineer recommend to address these requirements?
- A. CASB
- B. DLP
- C. SWG
- D. WAF
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
DLP (data loss prevention) is a solution that can meet the following requirements: identify sensitive data in the provider's network, maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines, detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts, and enforce data-centric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and access control. DLP can monitor, classify, and protect data in motion, at rest, or in use, and prevent unauthorized disclosure or exfiltration. WAF (web application firewall) is a solution that can protect web applications from common attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting, but it does not address the requirements listed. CASB (cloud access security broker) is a solution that can enforce policies and controls for accessing cloud services and applications, but it does not address the requirements listed.
SWG (secure web gateway) is a solution that can monitor and filter web traffic to prevent malicious or unauthorized access, but it does not address the requirements listed. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guid
NEW QUESTION # 39
A small firm's newly created website has several design flaws.
The developer created the website to be fully compatible with ActiveX scripts in order to use various digital certificates and trusting certificate authorities.
However, vulnerability testing indicates sandboxes were enabled, which restricts the code's access to resources within the user's computer.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error"?
- A. The developer did not consider that mobile code would be transmitted across the network.
- B. The developer inadvertently used Java applets.
- C. The developer established a corporate account with a non-reputable certification authority.
- D. The developer used fuzzy logic to determine how the web browser would respond once ports 80 and 443 were both open
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 40
A company's Chief Information Officer wants to Implement IDS software onto the current system's architecture to provide an additional layer of security. The software must be able to monitor system activity, provide Information on attempted attacks, and provide analysis of malicious activities to determine the processes or users Involved. Which of the following would provide this information?
- A. HIPS
- B. HlDS
- C. UEBA
- D. NIDS
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 41
An attacker infiltrated the code base of a hardware manufacturer and inserted malware before the code was compiled. The malicious code is now running at the hardware level across a number of industries and sectors. Which of the following categories BEST describes this type of vendor risk?
- A. Remote code signing
- B. SDLC attack
- C. Side-load attack
- D. Supply chain attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
In reference to the overarching concept of supply chain, it is important to consider the dependency of third parties on third parties and that frameworks and libraries themselves may also have third-party dependencies. These items essentially become fourth-party (or fifth, sixth-party, etc.) elements and have the potential of presenting vulnerabilities in the final product.
Additionally, it is important to maintain careful control and integrity checking of existing source code. For the source code that remains openly accessible for review and inspection, being able to confidently and quickly identify any changes that have been made to it is critically important.
While many changes are to be expected with source code, it is still imperative to know what changed, by whom, for what reasons, and at what time they occurred in order to discern between authorized and unauthorized or malicious changes.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A company uses an enterprise desktop imaging solution to manage deployment of its desktop computers. Desktop computer users are only permitted to use software that is part of the baseline image. Which of the following technical solutions was MOST likely deployed by the company to ensure only known-good software can be installed on corporate desktops?
- A. Network access control
- B. Application whitelisting
- C. File integrity checks
- D. Configuration Manager
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 43
A user experiences an HTTPS connection error when trying to access an Internet banking website from a corporate laptop. The user then opens a browser on a mobile phone and is able to access the same Internet banking website without issue. Which of the following security configurations is MOST likely the cause of the error?
- A. TLS 1.2
- B. Client authentication
- C. Certificate pinning
- D. HSTS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Just using SSL and HTTPS doesn't fully protect your data. Instead, certificate pinning currently tops the list of ways to make your application traffic secure. and it looks like the corporation laptop browser is not capable of doing so but mobile OSs on the other hand allow for Certificate pinning.
This helps thwart man-in-the-middle attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 44
A security engineer is reviewing a record of events after a recent data breach incident that Involved the following:
* A hacker conducted reconnaissance and developed a footprint of the company s Internet-facing web application assets.
* A vulnerability in a third-party horary was exploited by the hacker, resulting in the compromise of a local account.
* The hacker took advantage of the account's excessive privileges to access a data store and exfiltrate the data without detection.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to help prevent this type of attack from being successful in the future?
- A. Stateful firewall
- B. User behavior analysis
- C. Secure web gateway
- D. Dynamic analysis
- E. Software composition analysis
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation
Software composition analysis (SCA) is the best solution to help prevent this type of attack from being successful in the future. SCA is a process of identifying the third-party and open source components in the applications of an organization. This analysis leads to the discovery of security risks, quality of code, and license compliance of the components. SCA can help the security engineer to detect and remediate any vulnerabilities in a third-party library that was exploited by the hacker, such as updating to a newer and more secure version of the library. SCA can also help to enforce secure coding practices and standards, such as following the principle of least privilege and avoiding excessive privileges for local accounts. By using SCA, the security engineer can improve the security posture and resilience of the web application assets against future attacks. Verified References:
https://www.synopsys.com/glossary/what-is-software-composition-analysis.html
https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/overview-of-software-composition-analysis/
NEW QUESTION # 45
A cybersecurity engineer analyst a system for vulnerabilities. The tool created an OVAL. Results document as output. Which of the following would enable the engineer to interpret the results in a human readable form?
(Select TWO.)
- A. Debugging utility
- B. XML style sheet
- C. OOXML editor
- D. SCAP tool
- E. Text editor
- F. Event Viewer
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 46
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What is the Certification Path of CompTIA CAS-004 Exam
The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification (CAS-004) is a validation of knowledge and skills required of a senior-level IT security professional to establish, implement, maintain and continuously monitor an organization's security program. The exam validates the hands-on skills required of seasoned professionals who have experience in network administration, risk management and compliance these types of questions also covered in CompTIA CAS-004 exam dumps. CompTIA CAS-004 Certification is the first step toward a career in information security, and provides a comprehensive knowledge base to make informed decisions and develop security policies and procedures that meet the needs of an enterprise.
The CompTIA CAS-004 certification is based on the information security foundation concepts provided by the organization. Current reviewing guides are available for the CompTIA Network+ certification. Computing environment regulations like the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) are updated in the different countries. Readiness roles focus on giving people the skills needed to prepare for, perform and succeed in a mission-critical environment. Integrate mobility centre in your IT infrastructure. Transferred frameworks infrastructure automation logon are available for free. The Transferred framework is an open source platform that allows the user to deploy, manage, and maintain secure remote workforce engagement solutions. Pool activities buffer pooling. Potential tenancy domain constantly changes, and this impacts your data.
CompTIA CAS-004 exam focuses on the latest trends and technologies in the field of IT security. CAS-004 exam covers topics such as risk management, enterprise security architecture, research and analysis, and integration of computing, communications, and business disciplines. CAS-004 exam validates the candidate's ability to design, implement, and manage complex security solutions that meet the needs of their organization.
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